rabbi, a history question. how did the shulchan aruch become THE book?

the setup is strange. it was the summary volume of the mechaber’s own beis yosef, the competition was the rambam’s mishneh torah and the tur, and it was printed in venice in 1565, in the mechaber’s lifetime, right when printing was young. the tur was printed back in 1475 and mishneh torah around 1480 with six editions before 1500, so the other books had the press too, with a 90 year head start. yet the summary won.

1. why does everyone follow it? no sanhedrin adopted it, nobody voted. if it spread because of print and convenience, its authority rests on popularity. is that enough to make a book binding on every jew?
2. if the press made it popular rather than the book being inherently above the others, why are shitos outside it treated as inferior? plenty of rishonim and acharonim argued with its rulings and were never refuted, just outprinted. does the accepted book settle a machlokes, or just set a default everyone is scared to leave?
3. was the mapah the real win? the book only went universal after the rama’s glosses were folded in at krakow in 1578 to 1580 and it stopped being a sefardi book. does halacha pick its books by merger?
4. was it the format? no reasons, no sugya, just rulings. the maharshal attacked exactly this in his yam shel shlomo introductions, that rulings without sources make people stop learning. does the most usable book beat the deepest book?
5. who chose? the rabbis, or the printers and the market with the rabbis ratifying afterward? could it have gone the maharshal’s way, with no code at all?

bottom line, basically: if the shulchan aruch won on print and convenience rather than depth, is “everyone follows it” a halachic fact or a historical accident? and does the same logic explain the mishna berura or artscroll in our day?